1. Which of the following is ordinarily considered a test of internal control
a. Send confirmation letters to banks.
b. Count and list cash on hand.
c. Examine signatures on checks.
d. Obtain or prepare reconciliations of bank accounts as of the balance sheet date.
2. When obtaining an understanding of an entity's control environment, an auditor
should concentrate on the substance of management's policies and procedures
rather than their form because
a. The auditor may believe that the policies and procedures are inappropriate for that particular
b. The board of directors may not be aware of management's attitude toward the control environment.
c. Management may establish appropriate policies and procedures but not act on them.
d. The policies and procedures may be so weak that no
reliance is contemplated by the auditor.
3. After the study and evaluation of a client's internal control policies and
procedures has been completed, an auditor might decide to
a. Increase the extent of substantive testing in areas where the internal control policies and procedures are strong.
b. Reduce the extent of control testing in areas where the internal control policies and procedures are strong.
c. Reduce the extent of both substantive and control testing in areas where the internal control policies and procedures are strong.
d. Increase the extent of substantive testing in areas where the internal controls are weak.
4. A conceptually logical approach to the auditor's evaluation of internal
accounting control consists of the following four steps:
I. Determine whether the necessary procedures are prescribed and are being followed satisfactorily.
II. Consider the types of errors and fraud that could
III. Determine the internal control policies and procedures
that should prevent or detect errors and fraud.
IV. Evaluate any weakness to determine its effect on the nature, timing, or extent of auditing procedures to be applied and suggestions to be made to the client.
What should be the order in which these four steps are performed?
a. III, IV, I, II
b. III, I, II, IV
c. II, III, I, IV
d. II, I, III, IV
5. An auditor evaluates the existing internal control in order to
a. Determine the extent of substantive tests which must be performed.
b. Determine the extent of control tests which must be performed.
c. Ascertain whether irregularities are probable.
d. Ascertain whether any employees have incompatible functions.
6. The auditor is studying internal control policies and procedures within
the sales, shipping, and billing subset of the revenue cycle. Which of the following
conditions suggests a need for additional testing of controls?
a. Internal control is found to be weak with regard to shipping and billing.
b. Internal control over sales, billing, and shipping appears strong, but 80% of sales revenue is attributable to three major customers.
c. Internal control over billing and shipping is thought to be strong and the auditor considers additional testing of selected controls will result in a major reduction in substantive testing.
d. Internal control over the recording of sales is found to be weak and the sales are evenly divided among a large number of customers.
7. A secondary objective of the auditor's study and evaluation of internal
control is that the study and evaluation provide
a. A basis for constructive suggestions concerning improvements in internal control.
b. A basis for reducing the auditor's assessed level of control risk below the maximum level.
c. An assurance that the records and documents have been maintained in accordance with existing company policies and procedures.
d. A basis for determination of the resultant extent of the tests to which auditing procedures are to be restricted.
8. In studying the design and implementation of a client's internal controls, the auditor needs to identify necessary control points. Controls existing at these points may be classified as "accuracy" controls and "safeguard" controls. Which of the following controls may be regarded as a safeguard control?
a. In processing sales orders, the computer is programmed to compare the customer's
credit limit minus the prior balance with the current sales order amount.
b. Sales prices are stored in computer memory and are automatically applied as stock numbers are entered from customer orders.
c. Although the payroll is prepared manually, a second employee recalculates gross pay, withholdings, and net pay.
d. Negotiable securities are kept in a locked vault and are accessible only by the treasurer accompanied by one of her assistants.
9. The auditor's review of the client's internal control is documented in order
a. Conformity of the accounting records with generally accepted accounting principles.
b. Representation as to adherence to requirements of management.
c. Representation as to compliance with generally accepted auditing standards.
d. The fairness of the financial statement presentation.
10. An internal control questionnaire indicates that an approved receiving
report is required to accompany every check request for payment of merchandise.
Which of the following procedures provides the greatest assurance that this
control is operating effectively?
a. Select and examine canceled checks and ascertain that the related receiving reports are dated no earlier than the checks.
b. Select and examine canceled checks and ascertain that the related receiving reports are dated no later than the checks.
c. Select and examine receiving reports and ascertain that the related canceled checks are dated no earlier than the receiving reports.
d. Select and examine receiving reports and ascertain that the related canceled checks are dated no later than the receiving reports.
11. When considering internal control, an auditor must be aware of the concept
of reasonable assurance which recognizes that
a. The employment of competent personnel provides assurance that the objectives of internal control will be achieved.
b. The establishment and maintenance of a system of internal control is an important responsibility of the management and not of the auditor.
c. The cost of internal control should not exceed the benefits expected to be derived from internal control.
d. The segregation of incompatible functions is necessary to obtain assurance that the internal control is effective.
12. Statement on Auditing Standards No. 60 requires the auditor to communicate
"reportable conditions" to the audit committee of the board of directors
or, in the absence of an audit committee, to a body having similar oversight
authority. Of the following, which does not represent a reportable condition?
a. Bank accounts have not been reconciled in the last nine months, including the last month of the fiscal year.
b. The corporate controller, unknown to the board of directors, has submitted her resignation effective two months from now.
c. Perpetual inventory records contain numerous errors and can no longer be relied upon to reflect proper inventory levels.
d. Although documents are prenumbered, they are not safeguarded and are not being used in numerical sequence.
13. In connection with the examination of financial statements by an independent auditor, the client suggests that members of the internal audit staff be utilized to minimize audit costs. Which of the following tasks could most appropriately be delegated to the internal audit staff?
a. Selection of accounts receivable for confirmation, based upon the internal auditor's judgment as to how many accounts and which accounts will provide sufficient coverage.
b. Preparation of schedules for negative accounts receivable responses.
c. Evaluation of the internal control for accounts receivable and sales.
d. Determination of the adequacy of the allowance for doubtful accounts.
14. An auditor uses the knowledge provided by the understanding of internal
control and the final assessed level of control risk primarily to determine
the nature, timing, and extent of the
a. Attribute tests.
b. Compliance tests.
c. Tests of controls.
d. Substantive tests.
15. Flowcharting as a means of internal control evaluation provides the following
advantage over the use of questionnaires and descriptive narratives:
a. Ease of preparation.
b. Comprehensive coverage of controls.
d. Ease in following information flow.
16. Which of the following factors most likely affects the auditor's judgment
about the quantity, type, and content of working papers?
a. The effectiveness of the existing internal control.
b. The content of the client's representation letter.
c. The timing of substantive tests completed prior to the balance sheet date.
d. The usefulness of the working papers as a reference source for the client.
17. If the independent auditors decide that the work performed by the internal
auditor may have a bearing on their own procedures, they should consider the
a. Competence and objectivity.
b. Efficiency and experience.
c. Independence and review skills.
d. Training and supervisory skills.
18. An auditor's purpose for further testing of internal control procedures
a. Provide a basis for reducing the assessed level of control risk below that which resulted from the auditor's initial understanding of internal control.
b. Reduce the risk that errors or fraud that are not prevented or detected by internal control are not detected by the independent audit.
c. Provide assurance that transactions are executed in accordance with management's authorization and accessed to assets is limited by a segregation of functions.
d. Provide assurance that transactions are recorded as
necessary to permit the preparation of the financial
statements in conformity with GAAP.
19. Control testing is performed in order to determine whether or not
a. The assessed level of control risk can be reduced.
b. Necessary controls are absent.
c. Incompatible functions exist.
d. Material dollar errors exist.
20. The independent auditor should acquire an understanding of the internal
audit function as it relates to the independent auditor's study and evaluation
of internal control because
a. The audit programs, working papers, and reports of internal auditors can often be used as a substitute for the work of the independent auditor's staff.
b. The procedures performed by the internal audit staff may eliminate the independent auditor's need for an extensive study and evaluation of internal control.
c. The work performed by internal auditors may be a factor in determining the nature, timing, and extent of the independent auditor's procedures.
d. The understanding of the internal audit function is an important substantive test to be performed by the independent auditor.
21. In the assessment of control risk, the auditor is basically concerned that the client's internal control provides reasonable assurance that
a. Management cannot override the system.
b. Operational efficiency has been achieved in accordance with management plans.
c. Errors and fraud have been prevented or detected.
d. Controls have not been circumvented by collusion.
22. Which of the following may be considered an appropriate means for further
testing controls over vendor payments?
a. Confirm year-end balances with vendors.
b. Search for unrecorded invoices at year-end.
c. Develop a set of hypothetical transactions designed to test existing controls over vendor payments (e.g., introduce into the system, a voucher containing an invoice for raw materials but lacking a purchase order and/or receiving report.)
d. Construct an internal control flowchart covering the payment processing function.
23. Which of the following statements concerning the independent auditor's
required communication of material weaknesses in internal control is correct?
a. Weaknesses reported at interim dates must be repeated in the final communication.
b. If the auditor does not become aware of any material weaknesses during the examination, that fact must be communicated.
c. Weaknesses that had been reported in prior years' communications and have not been corrected need not be repeated in the current year's communication.
d. Although written communication is preferable, the auditor may communicate the findings orally.
24. Which of the following would be the best procedure to determine whether
purchases were properly authorized?
a. Discuss authorization procedures with personnel in the controller's and purchasing functions.
b. Review and evaluate a flowchart of purchasing procedures.
c. Determine whether a sample of entries in the purchase journal is supported by properly executed purchase orders.
d. Vouch payments for selected purchases to supporting
25. After studying and evaluating a client's existing internal control, an auditor has concluded that the policies and procedures are well designed and functioning as intended. Under these circumstances, the auditor would most likely
a. Perform further control tests to the extent outlined in the audit program.
b. Determine the control policies and procedures that should prevent or detect errors and fraud.
c. Set detection risk at a higher level than would be set under conditions of weak internal control.
d. Set detection risk at a lower level than would be set under conditions of weak internal control.
26. An auditor is required to obtain a basic understanding of the client's
internal control to plan the audit. The auditor may then decide to perform tests
of controls on all internal control procedures
a. That would aid in preventing fraud.
b. Documented in the flowchart.
c. Considered to be weaknesses that might allow errors to enter the accounting system.
d. Considered to be strengths for which the auditor desires further reduction in the assessed level of control risk.
27. The auditor's understanding of the client's internal control is documented
in order to substantiate
a. Conformity of the accounting records with generally accepted accounting principles.
b. Compliance with generally accepted auditing standards.
c. Adherence to requirements of management.
d. The fairness of the financial statement presentation.
28. To determine whether the client's system of internal control operated effectively
to minimize errors of failure to invoice a shipment, the auditor would select
a sample of transactions from the population represented by the
a. Customer order file.
b. Bill of lading file.
c. Open invoice file.
d. Sales invoice file.
29. When evaluating a client's system of internal control to determine whether
the necessary procedures are prescribed and have been implemented satisfactorily,
an auditor must
a. Develop questionnaires and checklists.
b. Obtain an understanding of internal control.
c. Perform tests of internal control procedures.
d. Evaluate administrative policies.
30. Of the following internal control policies or procedures, which would most
likely allow for a reduction in the scope of the auditor's tests of depreciation
a. Review and approval of the periodic equipment depreciation entry by a supervisor who does not actively participate in its preparation.
b. Comparison of equipment account balances for the current year with the current-year budget and prior-year actual balances.
c. Review of the miscellaneous income account for salvage credits and scrap sales of partially depreciated equipment.
d. Authorization of payment of vendors' invoices by a designated employee who is independent of the equipment receiving function.
31. Tracing copies of sales invoices to shipping documents will provide evidence
a. Shipments to customers were recorded as receivables.
b. Billed sales were shipped.
c. Debits to the subsidiary accounts receivable ledger are for sales shipped.
d. Shipments to customers were billed.
32. In assessing control risk, the auditor must, as a minimum
a. Perform tests of all significant controls.
b. Obtain an understanding of the design and
implementation of the client's internal control.
c. Obtain an understanding of the design of the client's internal control.
d. Obtain an understanding of the design, implementation, and operating effectiveness of the client's internal control.
33. An independent auditor has concluded that the client's records, procedures
and representations can be relied upon based on tests made during the year when
internal control was found to be effective. The auditor should test the records,
procedures, and representations again at year-end if
a. Inquiries and observations lead the auditor to believe that conditions have changed significantly.
b. Comparisons of year-end balances with like balances at prior dates revealed significant fluctuations.
c. Unusual transactions occurred subsequent to the completion of the interim audit work.
d. Client records are in a condition that facilitate effective and efficient testing.
34. An auditor is least likely to further test control procedures by examining
documents with respect to controls relating to
a. Segregation of the functions of recording disbursements and reconciling the bank account.
b. Comparison of receiving reports and vendors' invoices with purchase orders.
c. Approval of the purchase and sale of marketable securities.
d. Classification of revenue and expense transactions by product line.
35. An auditor usually examines receiving reports to support
entries in the
a. Voucher register and sales returns journal.
b. Sales journal and sales returns journal.
c. Voucher register and sales journal.
d. Check register and sales journal.
36. Regardless of whether the auditor decides to test controls for operating
effectiveness, he/she must fully document his or her understanding of the internal
control policies and procedures obtained through whatever means. Which of the
following does not describe an appropriate means for documenting such understanding?
a. Internal control flowchart.
b. Internal control implementation.
c. Internal control memorandum.
d. Internal control questionnaire.
37. Which of the following best describes the primary reason for the auditor's
use of flowcharts during an audit engagement?
a. To comply with the requirements of generally accepted auditing standards.
b. To classify the client's documents and transactions by major operating functions, e.g., cash receipts, cash disbursements, etc.
c. To record the auditor's understanding of the client's internal control policies and procedures.
d. To interpret the operational effectiveness of the client's existing organizational structure.
38. An auditor generally tests physical security controls over inventory by
a. Test counts and cutoff procedures.
b. Examination and reconciliation.
c. Inspection and recomputation.
d. Inquiry and observation.
39. Which of the following is not an auditing procedure that is commonly used in performing control tests?
40. If the independent auditor decides that the work performed by internal
auditors may have a bearing on the independent auditor's own procedures, the
independent auditor should consider the objectivity of the internal auditors.
One method of judging objectivity is to
a. Review the recommendations made in the reports of the internal auditor.
b. Examine, on a test basis, documentary evidence of the work performed by internal auditors.
c. Inquire of management about the qualifications of the internal audit staff.
d. Consider the client's practices for hiring, training, and supervising the internal audit staff.
41. Tracing bills of lading to sales invoices will provide evidence that
a. Recorded sales were shipped.
b. Invoiced sales were shipped.
c. Shipments to customers were invoiced.
d. Shipments to customers were recorded as sales.
42. The development of constructive suggestions to clients for
improvements in internal accounting control is
a. A requirement of the auditor's study and evaluation of internal accounting control.
b. A desirable byproduct of an audit engagement.
c. Addressed by the auditor only during a special engagement.
d. As important as establishing a basis for reliance upon the internal accounting control system.
43. Which of the following statements with respect to the independent auditor's evaluation of internal control is correct?
a. The auditor should decrease control testing when weaknesses in cash receipts are mitigated by strong controls in cash disbursement procedures.
b. The auditor should increase control testing when weaknesses in billing procedures are mitigated by strong controls in collection procedures.
c. The auditor generally should not evaluate the overall effectiveness of internal control, but should separately evaluate each of the transaction cycles.
d. The auditor should evaluate all internal control weaknesses before determining the control procedures that should prevent or detect errors or irregularities.
44. Which of the following statements best describes the auditor's responsibility
regarding the detection of material fraud?
a. Because of the inherent limitations of an audit, the auditor is not responsible for the failure to detect material fraud.
b. The auditor is responsible for the failure to detect material fraud when such failure results from nonperformance of audit procedures specifically described in the engagement letter.
c. The auditor should design audit programs that will provide reasonable assurance that material errors and fraud will be detected in the ordinary course of the examination.
d. The auditor is responsible for the failure to detect material fraud when the auditor's evaluation of internal control procedures indicates that they are ineffective.
45. Which of the following procedures most likely would be included as part
of an auditor's tests of control procedures?
d. Analytical procedures.
46. If, after obtaining an initial understanding of a client's internal control,
the auditor wishes to further reduce the assessed level of control risk relating
to plant asset transactions, the auditor should next
a. Make extensive substantive tests of plant asset balances.
b. Establish the physical existence of current year additions.
c. Complete the plant asset section of the internal accounting control questionnaire.
d. Further test those internal control procedures relating to processing and recording plant asset transactions.
47. The auditor is most likely to presume that a high risk of defalcation exists
a. The client is a multinational company that does business in numerous foreign countries.
b. The client does business with several related parties.
c. Inadequate segregation of duties places an employee in a position to perpetrate and conceal thefts.
d. Inadequate employee training results in lengthy CBIS exception reports each month.
48. After obtaining an understanding of the client's internal control, the
auditor should consider whether
a. The projected degree of effectiveness of internal control is justified.
b. The evidential matter obtained from the study of the internal control system can provide a reasonable basis for an opinion.
c. Further testing of internal control procedures is likely to permit further reduction of assessed control risk.
d. Sufficient knowledge has been obtained about the entity's entire system of internal control.
49. Which of the following is the correct order of performing the auditing
procedures A through C below?
A = Tests of internal control procedures.
B = Preparation of a flowchart depicting the client's
internal control system.
C = Substantive tests.
50. Auditors frequently use flowcharts in connection with which
of the following
a. Preparation of generalized computer audit programs.
b. Review of the client's internal control procedures.
c. Use of statistical sampling in performing an audit.
d. Performance of analytical review procedures of account balances.
51. Which of the following conditions suggest a lowering of the aggregate materiality threshold?
a. Internal controls in the area of payroll processing are found to be much
stronger than the auditor's initial assessment.
b. The application of analytical procedures reveals a favorable sales budget variance that is material and that remains unexplained.
c. Study of the business and industry reveals a material decline in both industry and client revenue during the current year.
d. Tests of internal controls in nearly all transaction cycle subsets have produced numerous and widespread errors.
52. If, during the course of an annual audit of a publicly held manufacturing
company, an independent auditor becomes aware of a material weakness in the
company's internal control, the auditor is required to communicate the weakness
a. The audit committee of the board of directors, or to a similar body having financial oversight responsibility.
b. The senior management of the company.
c. The board of directors of the company.
d. The treasurer and controller of the client entity.
53. Under which of the following conditions would you consider lowering individual
item materiality thresholds.
a. Study of the business and industry, together with the application of analytical procedures, reveals that the client has enjoyed a surge in sales and gross profit during an industry downturn.
b. Application of analytical procedures shows that the client's gross profit rate is significantly below last year and also is materially lower than the industry average.
c. Study of internal controls within the revenue cycle reveal material weaknesses.
d. Study of internal controls within the payroll cycle confirm the auditor's belief that few errors have occurred.
54. Which of the following is not a medium that can normally be used by an
auditor to record information concerning a client's internal control policies
a. Narrative memorandum.
b. Procedures manual.
55. With respect to the client's system of internal control, the auditor is
concerned that the existing policies and procedures provide reasonable assurance
a. Operational efficiency has been achieved in accordance with management plans.
b. Errors and fraud have been prevented or detected.
c. Controls have not been circumvented by collusion.
d. Management cannot override the internal controls.
56. The auditor observes client employees during the review of the client's
system of internal control in order to
a. Prepare a flowchart.
b. Update information contained in the organization and procedure manuals.
c. Assist in obtaining an understanding of the client's internal control policies and procedures.
d. Determine the extent of compliance with quality control standards.
57. An auditor's flowchart of a client's accounting system is a diagrammatic
representation that depicts the auditor's
a. Program for tests of controls.
b. Understanding of the system.
c. Understanding of the types of fraud that are probable, given the present system.
d. Documentation of the study and evaluation of the system.
58. An independent auditor might consider the procedures performed by the internal
a. They are employees whose work must be reviewed during substantive testing.
b. They are employees whose work might be relied upon.
c. Their work impacts upon the cost/benefit tradeoff in evaluating inherent limitations.
d. Their degree of independence may be inferred by the
nature of their work.
59. A procedure that would most likely be used by an auditor in performing tests of control procedures that involve segregation of functions and that leave no transaction trail is
60. It is important for the CPA to consider the competence of the audit client's
employees because their competence bears directly and importantly upon the
a. Cost/benefit relationship of the internal control system.
b. Achievement of the objectives of the internal control system.
c. Comparison of recorded accountability with assets.
d. Timing of the tests to be performed.
61. In studying internal control and assessing control risk, the auditor applies
the following steps:
a. Determine the internal control policies and procedures necessary to prevent or detect errors or fraud that could occur in the absence of controls.
b. Identify control weaknesses.
c. Determine whether the necessary policies and procedures have been designed and whether they have been placed in operation.
d. Design substantive audit programs.
e. Consider the types of errors or fraud that could occur in the absence of necessary controls.
The proper sequence in applying these steps is:
62. The primary purpose of performing further control tests is to provide
a. A basis for reducing the assessed level of control risk below the maximum level.
b. A basis for understanding the flow of transactions through the accounting system.
c. Assurance that transactions are properly recorded.
d. All accounting control procedures leave visible evidence.
63. To determine whether refunds granted to customers were properly approved,
the auditor should trace accounts receivable entries to:
a. Sales invoices.
b. Remittance advices.
c. Shipping documents.
d. Credit memos.
64. A well-prepared flowchart should make it easier for the auditor to
a. Prepare audit procedure manuals.
b. Prepare detailed job descriptions.
c. Trace the origin and disposition of documents.
d. Assess the degree of accuracy of financial data.